Prepare SAP E_S4HCON2019 Exam With E_S4HCON2019 Dumps PDF - DumpsProfessor

Question: 1

You want to use the Custom Code Migration Worklist via Remote Code analysis using the ABAPTest
Cockpit (ATC). How can you get the latest content of the simplification database?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. Configure it within transaction ATC
B. Apply the corresponding SAP note via SAP Note Assistant
C. Download it from SAP Support Portal
D. Generate it by analyzing the specific custom code via RFC

Answer: C

Question: 2

What is the benefit of using the file UPGANA.XML from a previous SUM run?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. To make the progress information within SUM UI more accurate
B. To auto-fill specific fields on selected screens on the SUM UI
C. To skip selected phases during the SUM run
D. To repeat specific phases during the SUM run

Answer: A

Question: 3

Which steps should be performed during the adjustment of dictionary objects (SPDD) in the
development system, before SUM continues?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. Release the transport request containing the modification adjustment
B. Assign the transport request as a modification adjustment transport
C. Create "modified' versions of the objects that you need to adjust
D. Manually activate the adjusted dictionary objects

Answer: BC

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Question: 4

What do you need to know about the SAP ERP Upgrade and Update Guide?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. It contains a section "free space requirements"
B. It is target release specific
C. It is a database-specific document
D. It contains a troubleshooting section

Answer: AB

Question: 5

Which Guides contain information about SUM phases starting with "EU_CLONE_"?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. The SAP S/HANA Conversion Guide
B. The Application Guide
C. The major SUM Guide
D. The DMO Guide

Answer: AD

Question: 6

How does SUM recognize modification adjustment transports from predecessor systems?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. By searching for transport requests named K0
B. By searching for transport requests in DIR_TRANS, subdirectory "transport"
C. By searching for transport requests in the file umodauto.Ist
D. By searching for transport requests that are assigned to the project SAP_ADJUST

Answer: B

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Question: 7

What are the benefits of using the Benchmarking option of the DMO for SUM?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. You can verify that the content of the download directory matches the stack.XML file.
B. You can obtain migration duration files that can be used to optimize the next runs from a previous
benchmark run.
C. You can record the modification adjustment during migration and use the transports in the next runs.
D. You can find the optimal number of parallel R3load processes by monitoring host performance.

Answer: BD

Question: 8

You are executing a standard SUM procedure to update an SAP system using main configuration mode
"Standard". When will the shadow system be stopped for the last time?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. As part of the cleanup process
B. At the end of the downtime
C. Early in the downtime
D. Before the downtime starts

Answer: D

Question: 9

You are running an SAP ECC system. For which of the following activities does SUM allow you to use the
Near Zero Downtime Maintenance (NZDM) capabilities?
There are 3 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. Use DMO for SUM.
B. Apply SAP Support Packages.
C. Perform an SAP S/4HANA conversion including DMO.
D. Upgrade the SAP system.
E. Apply an Enhancement Package.

Answer: BDE

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Question: 10

When using the DMO of SUM, which files can be handled by SUM in the download directory?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:
A. Parameter file SAPup_add.par
B. Stack XML file calculated by the Maintenance Planner
C. MIGRATE_DT_DUR_XML file from a previous run
D. Breakpoint configuration file SAPUPPHAS.BRK

Answer: BC

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DumpsProfessor | Updated 70-333 Dumps PDF Verified by Microsoft

Question 1:

You need to configure the Skype for Business Server 2015 environment to meet the technical requirements for
push notifications to mobile users.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Open port 23457 on the Enterprise Wi-Fi network.
B. Open port 5223 on the Enterprise Wi-Fi network.
C. Configure NAME redirection over HTTPS for the acquired domain.
D. Configure a web publishing rule for port 80 on the reverse proxy for the acquired domain.

Answer: B C


Question 2: 

Remote users report that they fail to access their voice mail by using the Call Voice Mail option in the Skype
tor Business client. Remote users can access voice mail by using the subscriber access number. Internal users
do not report any issues accessing voice mail.
You need to enable voice mail access without manually dialing the subscriber number.
Which two sets of ports should you open? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. TCP 443 and UDP 3478 on the external firewall
B. TCP 5062 and 8057 on the internal firewall. TCP 5062 and 8057 on the external firewall
C. TCP 443 and UDP 3478 on the internal firewall
D. UDP 50,000 to 59,999 on the internal firewall
E. UDP 50,000 to 59,999 on the external firewall

Answer: A D


Question 3:

You need to create the voice routes.
How many voice routes should you create?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 40
E. 270

Answer: C



Question 4:

You are performing a network readiness assessment for Skype for Business deployment for a customer’s
organization.
The customer’s organization includes five sites that are connected by site-to-site virtual private network (VPN)
links. Each site includes from 20 to 100 client computers.
You need to collect network traffic metrics.
Which three network traffic metrics should you collect? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. average packet loss
B. average jitter
C. TCP/IP port statistics
D. one-way network delay
E. minimum jitter
F. peer-to-peer (P2P) available bandwidth


Answer: A B D

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Eccouncil 312-49 Dumps PDF 100% Authentic & Unique Guideline

Question 1:

What is the First Step required in preparing a computer for forensics investigation?

A. Do not turn the computer off or on, run any programs, or attempt to access data on a computer
B. Secure any relevant media
C. Suspend automated document destruction and recycling policies that may pertain to any relevant
media or users at Issue
D. Identify the type of data you are seeking, the Information you are looking for, and the urgency level
of the examination


Answer: A 


Question 2: 

Network forensics can be defined as the sniffing, recording, acquisition and analysis of the network
traffic and event logs in order to investigate a network security incident.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A



Question 3:

Which of the following commands shows you the names of all open shared files on a server and number of file locks on each file?

A. Net sessions
B. Net file
C. Netconfig
D. Net share

Answer: B 


Question 4:

The Recycle Bin exists as a metaphor for throwing files away, but it also allows user to retrieve and
restore files. Once the file is moved to the recycle bin, a record is added to the log file that exists in the
Recycle Bin.
Which of the following files contains records that correspond to each deleted file in the Recycle Bin?

A. INFO2 file
B. INFO1 file
C. LOGINFO2 file
D. LOGINFO1 file

Answer: A


Question 5:

Email archiving is a systematic approach to save and protect the data contained in emails so that it can
be accessed fast at a later date. There are two main archive types, namely Local Archive and Server
Storage Archive. Which of the following statements is correct while dealing with local archives?

A. It is difficult to deal with the webmail as there is no offline archive in most cases. So consult your
counsel on the case as to the best way to approach and gain access to the required data on servers
B. Local archives do not have evidentiary value as the email client may alter the message data
C. Local archives should be stored together with the server storage archives in order to be admissible in
a court of law
D. Server storage archives are the server information and settings stored on a local system whereas the
local archives are the local email client information stored on the mail server


Answer: A

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Latest ORACLE 1Z0-936 Dumps ORACLE 1Z0-936 Exam Questions

Question 1:

You want to create a filter that restricts access to the Fact table so that Revenue Is only visible to users
assigned to a particular role. In which tab should you set this up?

A. Permissions
B. Row Level Data
C. Table filter
D. Data Filters

Answer: D

You can define data filters for fact tables, dimension tables, and columns that provide row-level security
for data model objects. For example, you can create a filter that restricts access to the Products table so
that only certain brands are visible to users assigned to a particular role.

Reference
https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/bi-cloud/bilpd/securing-access-data.html


Question 2: 

Oracle Analytics Cloud offers several visualization options for presenting query results. How do you
explicitly invoke "best visualization" in Oracle Analytics Cloud?

A. Select the desired data elements from the Data Elements pane and drag them onto the Best
Visualization zone in the Explore pane.
B. Drag an entire Data Set from the Data Elements pane onto the Data Visualization canvas and let the
tool determine the best visualization.
C. Select the "Best Visualization" option from the project's Canvas Settings drop-down menu.
D. Select the desired data elements from the Data Elements pane, right-click and select "Create Best
Visualization" from the drop-down menu.

Answer: B

Reference
https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/analytics-cloud/acubi/visualizing-data-and-buildingreports-oracle-analytics-cloud.pdf (39)



Question 3:

Which two statements are true regarding configuring filters to control visual content?

A. Expression filters cannot be applied in the filter steps of Oracle Analytics Cloud Data Visualization data
flows.
A. Variables may be employed in all Data Visualization filter types (that is, Range, List, Date, Expression).
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C. Application role filters for fact and dimension tables are defined in the Oracle Analytics Cloud Data
Modeler.
D. When the Oracle Business Intelligence Enterprise Edition repository is used as a data source, filters
defined in the initialization blocks with the client administration tool are automatically inherited in Data
Visualization.

Answer: CD


Question 4:

Which two statements are true regarding the source of Oracle BI Enterprise Edition Analyses?

A. Analyses can be created from multiple subject areas as long as at least one metric Is Included from
each, and the Dimensionality Flag is enabled.
B. Analyses can be created from multiple business models as long as they contain common, conformed
dimensions.
C. Analyses cannot be created from multiple subject areas even though they contain common,
conformed dimensions.
D. Analyses can be created with measures from multiple physical tables defined as sources in a single
logical fact table.


Answer: CD


Question 5:

Which feature does the Data Lake Edition uniquely offer?

A. Use the Day by Day mobile app
B. Execute data flows on Apache Spark
C. Migrate content from your existing on-premises environment
D. Live optimized connectivity to your on-premises database

Answer: A

Reference
https://www.us-analytics.com/hyperionblog/oracle-unveils-data-lake-edition-for-oac

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Latest ORACLE 1Z0-053 Dumps PDF Perfect Dedication | DumpsProfessor

Question 1:

You want to perform the following operations for the DATA ASM disk group:
• Verify the consistency of the disk.
• Cross-check all the file extent maps and allocation tables for consistency.
• Check whether the alias metadata directory and file directory are linked correctly.
• Check that ASM metadata directories do not have unreachable allocated blocks.
Which command accomplishes these tasks?

A. ALTER DISKGROUP data CHECK;
B. ALTER DISKGROUP data CHECK DISK;
C. ALTER DISKGROUP data CHECK FILE;
D. ALTER DISKGROUP data CHECK DISK IN FAILURE GROUP

Answer: A 

Explanation:
Syntax: ALTER DISKGROUP <disk_group_id> CHECK [REPAIR | NOREPAIR];
The check_diskgroup_clause lets you verify the internal consistency of Oracle ASM disk group
metadata. The disk group must be mounted. Oracle ASM displays summary errors and writes the
details of the detected errors in the alert log.
The CHECK keyword performs the following operations:
• Checks the consistency of the disk.
• Cross checks all the file extent maps and allocation tables for consistently.
• Checks that the alias metadata directory and file directory are linked correctly.
• Checks that the alias directory tree is linked correctly.
• Checks that Oracle ASM metadata directories do not have unreachable allocated blocks.
Refer to here


Question 2:

Which two statements are true regarding the functionality of the remap command in ASMCMD?
(Choose two.)

A. It repairs blocks that have read disk I/O errors.
B. It checks whether the alias metadata directory and the file directory are linked correctly.
C. It repairs blocks by always reading them from the mirror copy and writing them to the original
location.
D. It reads the blocks from a good copy of an ASM mirror and rewrites them to an alternate location
on disk if the blocks on the original location cannot be read properly.

Answer: A, D

Explanation:
Reference from the Oracle document release v11.1 at here:
Repairs a range of physical blocks on a disk. The remap command only repairs blocks that have read
disk I/O errors. It does not repair blocks that contain corrupted contents, whether or not those
blocks can be read. The command assumes a physical block size of 512 bytes and supports all
allocation unit sizes (1 to 64 MB).
Reference from the Oracle document release v11.2 at here:
The remap command marks a range of blocks as unusable on the disk and relocates any data
allocated in that range.


Question 3:

What is the advantage of setting the ASM-preferred mirror read for the stretch cluster configuration?

A. It improves resync operations.
B. This feature enables much faster file opens.
C. It improves performance as fewer extent pointers are needed in the shared pool.
D. It improves performance by reading from a copy of an extent closest to the node.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Preferred Read Failure Groups
When you configure Oracle ASM failure groups, it might be more efficient for a node to read from an
extent that is closest to the node, even if that extent is a secondary extent. In other words, you can
configure Oracle ASM to read from a secondary extent if that extent is closer to the node instead of
Oracle ASM reading from the primary copy which might be farther from the node. Using the
preferred read failure groups feature is most useful in extended clusters.


Question 4:

Examine the following command:
ALTER DISKGROUP data MOUNT FORCE;
In which scenario can you use the above command to mount the disk group?
A. when ASM disk goes offline
B. when one or more ASM files are dropped
C. when some disks in a disk group are offline
D. when some disks in a failure group for a disk group are rebalancing

Answer: C

Explanation:
In the FORCE mode, Oracle ASM attempts to mount the disk group even if it cannot discover all of
the devices that belong to the disk group. This setting is useful if some of the disks in a normal or
high redundancy disk group became unavailable while the disk group was dismounted. When
MOUNT FORCE succeeds, Oracle
ASM takes the missing disks offline.
If Oracle ASM discovers all of the disks in the disk group, then MOUNT FORCE fails. Therefore, use
the MOUNT FORCE setting only if some disks are unavailable. Otherwise, use NOFORCE.
In normal- and high-redundancy disk groups, disks from one failure group can be unavailable and
MOUNT FORCE will succeed. Also in high-redundancy disk groups, two disks in two different failure
groups can be unavailable and MOUNT FORCE will succeed. Any other combination of unavailable
disks causes the operation to fail, because Oracle ASM cannot guarantee that a valid copy of all user
data or metadata exists on the available disks.
Refer to here


Question 5:

Which background process of a database instance, using Automatic Storage Management (ASM),
connects as a foreground process into the ASM instance?

A. ASMB
B. PMON
C. RBAL
D. SMON

Answer: A

Explanation:
ASMB (ASM Background Process): Communicates with the ASM instance, managing storage and
providing statistics, runs in ASM instances when the ASMCMD cp command runs or when the
database instance first starts if the server parameter file is stored in ASM. ASMB also runs with
Oracle Cluster Registry on ASM.
RBAL (ASM Rebalance Master Process): In an ASM instance, it coordinates rebalance activity for disk
groups. In a database instances, it manages ASM disk groups.
PMON (Process Monitor): Monitors the other background processes and performs process recovery
when a server or dispatcher process terminates abnormally.
SMON (System Monitor Process): Performs critical tasks such as instance recovery and dead
transaction recovery, and maintenance tasks such as temporary space reclamation, data dictionary
cleanup, and undo tablespace management

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1Y0-240 Exam Questions, CITRIX 1Y0-240 Free Dumps | DumpsProfessor

Question 1:
A Citrix Administrator wants to configure independent and isolated access on a single appliance for
three different departments to allow them to manage and isolate their own applications.
How can the administrator isolate department-level administration?

A. Configure dedicated routes in the admin partitions for each department.
B. Configure Policy-based Routes for each department in the nsroot partition.
C. Configure admin partitions that use dedicated VLANs.
D. Configure a SNIP in each partition and bind a VLAN for the department.

Answer: C


Question 2:
A Citrix Administrator is configuring Unified Gateway with authentication policies.
Where should the administrator configure NetScaler Gateway authentication policies?

A. Global level
B. Unified Gateway level
C. Content-Switching level
D. NetScaler Gateway level

Answer: D


Question 3:
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to implement a Content Filter policy to ensure the following
conditions are met:
The user with source IP 10.100.32.211 should NOT be allowed to access the vserver 10.10.10.1.
All other users from subnet 10.100.32.0/24 should have access to the vserver 10.10.10.1.
Access to the vserver should be blocked for all the other users.
Which policy expression will meet this requirement if the policy action is RESET and the policy is bound
to the server (VIP:10.10.10.1)?

A. REQ.IP.SOURCEIP != 10.100.32.211 || REQ.IP.SOURCEIP != 10.100.32.211 –netmask 255.255.255.0
B. REQ.IP.SOURCEIP = = 10.100.32.211 || REQ.IP.SOURCEIP != 10.100.32.0 –netmask 255.255.255.0
C. REQ.IP.SOURCEIP != 10.100.32.211 && REQ.IP.SOURCEIP = = 10.100.32.0–netmask 255.255.255.0
D. REQ.IP.SOURCEIP = = 10.100.32.211 && REQ.IP.SOURCEIP != 10.100.32.0 –netmask 255.255.255.0


Answer: A


Question 4:
A Citrix Administrator needs to match the host name ‘www.example.com’ in all HTTP requests.
Which expression, when used, meets this requirement?

A. HTTP.REQ.HOSTNAME.EQ(“www.example.com”)
B. HTTP.REQ.HOSTNAME.(“example.com”)
C. HTTP.RES.HOSTNAME.CONTAINS(“www.example.com”)
D. HTTP.RES.HOSTNAME.EQ(“www.example.com”)

Answer: A

Question 5:
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator would like to grant access to a Junior Administrator on the NetScaler.
The administrator would like to grant full access to everything except the following:
Shell Access
User Configuration access
Partition Configuration access
Which pre-existing command policy would meet the needs of the scenario?

A. Superuser
B. Network
C. Operator
D. Sysadmin

Answer: C

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100% Free CompTIA PT0-001 Exam Sample Questions | Verified By Experts

Question 1:
A constant wants to scan all the TCP Pots on an identified device. Which of the following Nmap switches
will complete this task?

A. -p
B. -p ALX,
C. -p 1-65534
D. -port 1-65534

Answer: C 


Question 2: 
The following command is run on a Linux file system:
Chmod 4111 /usr/bin/sudo
Which of the following issues may be exploited now?

A. Kernel vulnerabilities
B. Sticky bits
C. Unquoted service path
D. Misconfigured sudo

Answer: B 


Question 3:
A client is asking a penetration tester to evaluate a new web application for availability. Which of the
following types of attacks should the tester use?

A. TCP SYN flood
B. SQL injection
C. xss
D. XMAS scan

Answer: B 


Question 4:
During a penetration test, a tester runs a phishing campaign and receives a shell from an internal PC
running Windows 10 OS. The tester wants to perform credential harvesting with Mimikatz.
Which of the following registry changes would allow for credential caching in memory?

A. reg add HKLM\System\ControlSet002\Control\SecurityProviders\WDigest /v userLogoCredential /t
REG_DWORD /d 0
B. reg add HKCU\System\CurrentControlSet\Control\SecurityProviders\WDigest /v userLogoCredential
/t REG_DWORD /d 1
C. reg add HKLM\Software\CurrentControlSet\Control\SecurityProviders\WDigest /v userLogoCredential
/t REG_DWORD /d 1
D. reg add HKLM\System\CurrentControlSet\Control\SecurityProviders\WDigest /v userLogoCredential
/t REG_DWORD /d 1


Answer: A 


Question 5:
In which of the following components is an exploited vulnerability MOST likely to affect multiple running
application containers at once?

A. Common libraries
B. Configuration files
C. Sandbox escape
D. ASLR bypass

Answer: A 

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HPE6-A41 Dumps - Here's What HP Certified Say about It | DumpsProfessor

Question 1:
Which privilege level would a network administrator use to configure an ArubaOS switch?

A. Administrator
B. Manager
C. Super
D. User

Answer: B 


Question 2: 
How many operating system image files can a network administrator load on an ArubaOS switch?

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. unlimited

Answer: A 


Question 3:
What is the relationship between a wireless client’s data rate and the throughput for the client’s traffic?

A. The throughput is 90 percent of the data rate.
B. The throughput is equal to the data rate multiplied by the connection time, minus the headers’ bytes.
C. The throughput is less than the data rate and also depends on factors such as number of clients in the
cell.
D. The data rate and the throughput are equivalent.

Answer: B 


Question 4:
A company has ArubaOS switches that are already configured to support the network. The company
now wants to use Aruba AirWave to manage the switches. The network administrator creates a new
group on Aruba AirWave, and then discovers several ArubaOS switches that should belong to this group.
What is the best practice for the initial authorization of the switches in AirWave?

A. Authorize the switches in Monitor + Firmware Updates only mode.
B. Authorize the switches and immediately change the scan set credentials to match the credentials on
the switches.
C. Authorize the switches and immediately change the global communication settings to match the
credentials on the switches.
D. Authorize the switches in Managed Read/Write mode.

Answer: D 

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HP HPE0-J55 Dumps PDF ~ 100% Brilliant Results| DumpsProfessor

Question 1:
What is an advantage of a meshed FC SAN topology when compared to a cascaded topology?

A. faster firmware upgrade procedures
B. large number of available switch ports
C. multiple paths for internal fabric resiliency
D. cost efficiency

Answer: C 


Question 2: 
Which component shifts processing of the communications protocol stack (TCP/IP) from the server
processor to the Network Interface Card (NIC), lowering CPU overhead and use?

A. TCP Offload Engine
B. GBIC
C. network switch
D. software iSCSI initiator

Answer: A


Question 3:
A customer is experiencing high latency while reading data from their HPE 3PAR 8200 storage array.
What should you propose as the most cost-effective way to increase read performance?

A. Increase the controller read cache.
B. Add magnetic disks to the current CPG.
C. Add SSDs for Adaptive Flash Cache.
D. Upgrade the controller CPUs and memory.

Answer: C 



Question 4:
What is the main difference between the FC and FCoE stack?

A. The higher layers of the FC stack are replaced by TCP/IP packets.
B. The lower layers of the FC stack are replaced by lossless Ethernet.
C. FCoE requires Layer 3 Ethernet switches.
D. Zoning is not supported in FCoE networks

Answer: B 


Question 5:
A customer requests a new storage array with the following features:
VMware virtualization integration
two sites with asynchronous replication
support for mixed mainstream workload
virtual server consolidation
automatic monitoring for available hotfixes
Which product should you present?

A. HPE 3PAR StoreServ
B. HPE StoreEasy
C. HPE StoreOnce
D. HPE Nimble

Answer: D 

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Try 98-366 Microsoft Dumps | 98-366 Verified Question Answers

Question 1:
One advantage of dynamic routing is that it:

A. Automatically maintains routing tables.
B. Limits traffic derived from routing protocols.
C. Reduces broadcast traffic.
D. Automatically enables DHCP.

Answer: A


Question 2: 
Which of the following represents a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

A. GV:ZC:KK:DK:FZ:CA
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 05:35:AB:6E:Al:25
D. 127.0.0.1

Answer: C 


Question 3:
Connecting to a private network address from a public network requires:

A. Network address translation (NAT).
B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
C. Network Access Protection (NAP).
D. Dynamic domain name system (DDNS).


Answer: A 


Question 4:
A network device that associates a Media Access Control (MAC) address with a port is a:

A. DSL modem
B. Hub
C. Router
D. Switch


Answer: D 


Question 5:
A Layer 2 device that connects multiple computers within a network is a:

A. Repeater
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Packet

Answer: B 

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Success is about the Corner with Microsoft 70-414 Dumps PDF | dumpsprofessor

Question 1:

You need to recommend a storage solution for the Hyper-V hosts. The configuration must meet the technical
requirements.

What should you include in the recommendation?
A . Cluster Shared Volumes (CSVs) and Hyper-V replicas
B. Cluster Shared Volumes (CSVs) and Failover Clustering
C. pass-through disk and Network Load balancing (NLB)
D. iSCSI targets and Hyper-V replicas

Answer: B

Explanation
References:
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/cedward/2013/11/05/windows-server-2012-smb-multichannel-and-csv-redirected-traffic-caveats/

Question 2: 

You need to automatically restart the appropriate web service on DETCRL01 and CHICRL01 if the web
service is stopped.
Solution: You create a recovery task in SCOM and configure it to start the World Wide Web publishing
service.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

Explanation
The Internet Information Services (IIS) World Wide Web Publishing Service (W3SVC), sometimes referred to
as the WWW Service, manages the HTTP protocol and HTTP performance counters.
The following is a list of the managed entities that are included in this managed entity:
* IIS Web Site
An Internet Information Services (IIS) Web site is a unique collection of Web pages and Web applications that
is hosted on an IIS Web server. Web sites have bindings that consist of a port number, an IP address, and an
optional host name or names.
* Active Server Pages (ASP)
Active Server Pages (ASP)
Reference:

IIS World Wide Web Publishing Service (W3SVC)
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc734944(v=ws.10).aspx


Question 3:

This question consists of two statements: One is named Assertion and the other is named Reason. Both of
these statements may be true; both may be false; or one may be true, while the other may be false.
To answer this question, you must first evaluate whether each statement is true on its own. If both statements
are true, then you must evaluate whether the Reason (the second statement) correctly explains the Assertion
(the first statement). You will then select the answer from the list of answer choices that matches your
evaluation of the two statements.
Assertion:

You must implement a Windows Server Gateway in the Seattle office.

Reason:
A Windows Server Gateway will prevent users from saving documents outside of the Seattle location.
Evaluate the Assertion and Reason statements and choose the correct answer option

A. Both the Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.
B. Both the Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion.
C. The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
D. The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.
E. Both the Assertion and the Reason are false


Answer: C


Question 4:

This question consists of two statements: One is named Assertion and the other is named Reason. Both of
these statements may be true; both may be false; or one may be true, while the other may be false.
To answer this question, you must first evaluate whether each statement is true on its own. If both statements
are true, then you must evaluate whether the Reason (the second statement) correctly explains the Assertion
(the first statement). You will then select the answer from the list of answer choices that matches your
evaluation of the two statements.

Assertion:
You must implement Azure site recovery between the New Delhi and Seattle offices to meet the backup
requirements.
Reason:
Azure site recovery allows replication and failover of virtual machines on host servers that are located in the
Virtual Machine Manager cloud.

Evaluate the Assertion and Reason statements and choose the correct answer option.
A. Both the Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.
B. Both the Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion.
C. The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
D. The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.
E. Both the Assertion and the Reason are false.


Answer: B


Question 5:

You are evaluating the use of VMM to migrate APP1 for the sales users. You need to identify the effects of
the migration.
What should you identify?

A. The VHDs and the virtual machine configuration files will move. The sales users' access to APP1 will
be interrupted.
B. The VHDs will move but the virtual machine configuration files will remain in the original location. The
sales users will continue to have uninterrupted access to APP1.
C. The virtual machine configuration files will move but the VHDs will remain in the original location. The
sales users' access to APP1 will be interrupted.
D. The VHDs and the virtual machine configuration files will move. The sales users will continue to have
uninterrupted access to APP1.

Answer: D

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