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Question: 1

Which three steps can be performed by using the Configure Module Objects pages? (Choose three.)
A. Choose display (or hide) configurable options for: results, events, consequences and treatments.
B. Set “object-perspective” association.
C. Create object data import templates.
D. Edit the assessment activity question and guidance text for all assessment types.
E. View assessment response details for all assessment types.

Answer: A,B,E 


Question: 2

Which three are true about implementing a best practice solution for Financial Reporting
Compliance? (Choose three.)
A. Large scope of project requires high effort for maintenance and administration.
B. It promotes rapid implementation and go-live.
C. It promotes go-live with minimal acceptance testing and user training.
D. It provides maximum return on investment with minimum project risk.
E. It promotes successful adoption and minimizes on-going cost of operation.

Answer: B,D,E 

Question: 3

How do you populate the Control Method field with a new custom value, such as a third-party
application’?
A. Enter the new value directly in the Control method field.
B. Use Lookup Meaning of the new lookup value.
C. Use Lookup Code of the new lookup value.
D. Use Lookup Type of the new lookup value.

Answer: A 

Question: 4

Which three risk assessment activity types are available in Financial Reporting Compliance? (Choose
three.)
A. Design Review
B. Qualitative Analysis
C. Quantitative Analysis
D. Certify
E. Audit
F. Assess Risk

Answer: A,D,F 

Question: 5

You are implementing Advanced Access Controls and there is a requirement for a control to monitor
user access to specific, client-defined access points which give users the ability to both initiate a
purchase order and approve payments on that purchase order.
Which is a valid option to implement the control?
A. From the “Access Entitlements” page create two entitlements containing the respective clientdefined
access points. Create an access model from the “Models” tab of Advanced Controls, based
on the entitlements you created.
B. Select Actions > Create Access Control from the “Controls” tab of Advanced Controls.
C. Create an access model from the “Models” tab of Advanced Controls, and then define an access
point filter for each individual client-defined access point.
D. From the “Access Entitlements” page create two entitlements containing the respective clientdefined
access points. Create an access model from the “Models” tab of Advanced Controls, based
on the entitlements you created. Finally, deploy an access control in the “Controls” tab of Advanced
Controls, and select the access model you created.
E. Create an access entitlement from the “Access Entitlements” page, then select Actions > Create
Access Control from the “Controls” tab of Advanced Controls, and select the entitlement you created.

Answer: D 

Question: 6

Which filter can be used to identify expense reports that contain suspicious expense type
combinations, such as, a report for a single trip that contains taxi, car rental, and mileage expenses?
A. Inclusive function filter grouped by the “Expense Report Information” object’s “Report Number”
where the “Expense Type” has an “Equals” condition for values that include taxi, car, mileage.
B. Inclusive function filter grouped by the “Expense Report Information” object’s “Report Number”
where the “Expense Type” has an “In” condition for values that include taxi, car, mileage.
C. Inclusive function filter grouped by the “Expense Report Information” object’s “Person” where the
“Expense Type” has an “In” condition for values that include taxi, car, mileage.
D. Inclusive function filter grouped by the “Expense Report Information” object’s “Report Number”
where the “Expense Type” has an “In” condition for values that include taxi, car, mileage.
E. Inclusive function filter grouped by the “Expense Report Information” object’s “Person” where the
“Expense Type” has an “In” condition for values that include taxi, car, mileage.
Answer: D 

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Sample Exam Questions Question: 1 You have invoices with distributions across primary balancing segments that represent different companies.What feature should you use if you want the system to automatically balance your invoice’s liability amount across the same balancing segments on the invoice distributions? A. Suspense Accounts B. Subledger Accounting’s Account Rules C. Intercompany Balancing D. Payables’ Automatic Offset E. Payables’ Allow Reconciliation Accounting Answer: D 
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Question: 6 You have 10 ledgers and 30 business units and want to leverage Reference: Data Sets. What is the function of Reference: Data Sets?  D. Both the invoice and the credit memo are included in the Payment Process Request. Answer: B 
Question: 7 What is the difference between subject areas that append the word “Real Time” and those that do not? A. The “Real Time” subject areas are based on subledger transactions and the ones that are not are based on general ledger balances. B. The “Real Time” subject areas are based on real-time transactions in the applications, and those that are not, are based on data stored in the Oracle Business Intelligence Applications data warehouse. C. The “Real Time” subject areas are based on real-time transactions and those that are not, are based on historical data. D. There is no difference. Answer: B 

Question: 8 Which method can you use to route payment approval rules? A. Serial and FYI (For Your Information) B. Approval Groups C. Both Parallel and Sequential D. Sequential E. Parallel Answer: B 

Question: 9 Which two statements are true related to configuration package? (Choose two.) A. You can export and import the custom roles from Oracle Identity Manager. B. You can export and import selected business object services. C. You can export and import selected business units. D. You can export and import the approval rules from the approval management engine. E. You can export and import the allocation rules from the allocation manager. Answer: A,B 

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Question: 1

What can an administrator do if a client has been incorrectly Period Blocked?

A. Disconnect the client from the network
B. Manually release the IP from the temporary Blacklist
C. Nothing, it is not possible to override a Period Block
D. Force a new IP address to the client.

Answer: B 

Question: 2

When generating a protection configuration from an auto learning report what critical step must you
do before generating the final protection configuration?

A. Restart the FortiWeb to clear the caches
B. Drill down in the report to correct any false positives.
C. Activate the report to create t profile
D. Take the FortiWeb offline to apply the profile

Answer: B 

Question: 3

How does an ADOM differ from a VDOM?

A. ADOMs do not have virtual networking
B. ADOMs improve performance by offloading some functions.
C. ADOMs only affect specific functions, and do not provide full separation like VDOMs do.
D. Allows you to have 1 administrator for multiple tenants

Answer: D 

Question: 4

You are configuring FortiAnalyzer to store logs from FortiWeb.
Which is true?

A. FortiAnalyzer will store antivirus and DLP archives from FortiWeb.
B. You must enable ADOMs on FortiAnalyzer.
C. To store logs from FortiWeb 6.0, on FortiAnalyzer, you must select “FrotiWeb 5.4”.
D. FortiWeb will query FortiAnalyzer for reports, instead of generating them locally.

Answer: B 

Question: 5

Which of the following would be a reason for implementing rewrites?

A. Page has been moved to a new URL
B. Page has been moved to a new IP address
C. Replace vulnerable functions.
D. Send connection to secure channel

Answer: A 

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Demo Question

 FortiMail is configured with the protected domain “example.com”. Identify which of the following envelope addresses will require an access receive rule to relay for unauthenticated senders? (Choose two.)

A. MAIL FROM: mis@hosted.net RCPT TO: noc@example.com
B. MAIL FROM: training@external.org RCPT TO: students@external.org
C. MAIL FROM: accounts@example.com RCPT TO: sales@exernal.org
D. MAIL FROM: support@example.com RCPT TO: marketing@example.com

Answer: C,D

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Pass HPE6-A67 Exam with New HPE6-A67 Dumps | Dumpsprofessor.com

Question: 1

Your boss suggests that you configure a guest self-registration page in ClearPass for the Conference
Events SSID.
Which advantages will this give? (Choose two.)

A. It will allow guest users to create a login account for the web login page.
B. It will stop employees from putting their corporate devices on the event network.
C. It will allow employees to get their own devices securely connected to the network.
D. It will allow the Conference center to collect extra information about the guest.
E. It can be pre-located with guest information from the conference registration.

Answer: A,E 

Question: 2

Which statements describe subnet scans for static IP device discovery? (Choose two.)

A. To run an On-Demand Subnet Scan, you must first configure a subnet scan in the profile settings.
B. The On-Demand option provides the ability to trigger a one-time scan in specified network
subnets.
C. The On-Demand option provides the ability to scan and profile devices only with static IP.
D. Only SNMP can be used for subnet scans for subnets configured for DHCP.
E. Subnet scans can be scheduled to execute a scan every 24 hrs for configured subnets.

Answer: B,C 

Question: 3

Select three elements that are part of the authorization process. (Choose three.)

A. Send a RADIUS accept to the Access device.
B. Verify client credentials against your account.
b Determine posture status.
D. Validate the user account attributes.
E. Filter by endpoint device type.

Answer: A,B,D

Question: 4

What is the function of the primary and backup servers when configuring an authentication source in
ClearPass?

A. The primary server and backup servers can be configured for round-robin.
B. The primary server can be from one Active Directory domain; the backup server can be from
another.
C. The primary server is always authenticated first, then the backup is used if authentication fails.
D. The primary server is always authenticated first, then the backup is used if that times out.

Answer: D

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Latest SAP E_S4HCON2019 Dumps PDF ~ Secret Of Success| Dumpsprofessor.com

Question: 1 

You want to use the Custom Code Migration Worklist via Remote Code analysis using the ABAP Test Cockpit (ATC). How can you get the latest content of the simplification database? Please choose the correct answer. Response:

A. Configure it within transaction ATC
B. Apply the corresponding SAP note via SAP Note Assistant
C. Download it from SAP Support Portal
D. Generate it by analyzing the specific custom code via RFC

Answer: C 

Question: 2 

What is the benefit of using the file UPGANA.XML from a previous SUM run? Please choose the correct answer. Response:

A. To make the progress information within SUM UI more accurate
B. To auto-fill specific fields on selected screens on the SUM UI
C. To skip selected phases during the SUM run
D. To repeat specific phases during the SUM run

Answer: A 

Question: 3 

Which steps should be performed during the adjustment of dictionary objects (SPDD) in the development system, before SUM continues? There are 2 correct answers to this question. Response:

A. Release the transport request containing the modification adjustment
B. Assign the transport request as a modification adjustment transport
C. Create "modified' versions of the objects that you need to adjust
D. Manually activate the adjusted dictionary objects

Answer: BC

Question: 4

What do you need to know about the SAP ERP Upgrade and Update Guide? There are 2 correct answers to this question. Response:

A. It contains a section "free space requirements"
B. It is target release specific
C. It is a database-specific document
D. It contains a troubleshooting section

Answer: AB

Question: 5

Which Guides contain information about SUM phases starting with "EU_CLONE_"? There are 2 correct answers to this question. Response:

A. The SAP S/HANA Conversion Guide
B. The Application Guide
C. The major SUM Guide
D. The DMO Guide

Answer: AD 

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Cisco 700-905 Practice Test Questions~ Unique and the Most Challenging

Question: 1 

What is the maximum number of cores supported in the Cisco UCS M5 server?

A. 28
B. 22
C. 12
D. 8

Answer: A     

Question: 2 

How many memory channels does the Cisco UCS M5 server support per CPU?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 8

Answer: C

Question: 3 

What is the maximum size of an HXDP cluster running 3.5.1?

A. 64 nodes
B. 8 nodes
C. 16 nodes
D. 32 nodes

Answer: A   


Question: 4

With which three components must every HyperFlex cluster be equipped with in regard to disks? (Choose three.)

A. NVMe drives
B. there are no specific requirements
C. same type of cache drives
D. same type and size of capacity of drives
E. same number of capacity drives
F. SAS drives

Answer: CDE    

Question: 5 

Which two features enable RAID cards striping as well as mirroring and parity? (Choose two.)

A. Integration with Cisco Intersight for a cloud-based storage management solution.
B. No load on the system resources, drives seem as one drive to the operating system
C. On RAID card failure, the RAID onboard concurrent cache assists rebuild cache.
D. Hot replacement of drives available, depending on configuration
E. Distributed drives across disparate systems can be in RAID together.

Answer: BD     

For

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Microsoft AZ-301 Exam Dumps | Microsoft AZ-301 Practice Test Questions

Question No 1 

You need to recommend a data storage strategy for WebApp1. What should you include in in the recommendation?

A. an Azure SQL Database elastic pool
B. a vCore-baswl Azure SQL database
C. an Azure virtual machine that runs SQL Server
D. a fixed-size DTU AzureSQL database.

Answer: B


Question No 2 

You need to recommend a strategy for the web tier of WebApp1. The solution must minimize What should you recommend?

A. Create a runbook that resizes virtual machines automatically to a smaller size outside of business hours.
B. Configure the Scale Up settings for a web app.
C. Deploy a virtual machine scale set that scales out on a 75 percent CPU threshold.
D. Configure the Scale Out settings for a web app.

Answer: D



Question No 3 

You need to recommend a solution to meet the database retention requirement. What should you recommend?

A. Configure a long-term retention policy for the database.
B. Configure Azure Site Recovery.
C. Configure geo replication of the database.
D. Use automatic Azure SQL Database backups.

Answer: A

Question No 4 

You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the back-end tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendations?

A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption
B. Transparent Date Encryption (TDE)
C. Azure Storage Service Encryption
D. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption

Answer: A


Question No 5 

You need to recommend a high-availability solution for the middle tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. availability zones
B. an availability set
C. the Premium App Service plan
D. the Isolated App Server plan

Answer: A

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Microsoft AZ-300 Dumps with Microsoft AZ-300 Question Answers

Question No 1 

You need to resolve a notification latency issue. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Ensure that the Azure Function is set to use a consumption plan.
B. Set Always On to false
C. Set Always On to true
D. Ensure that the Azure Function is using an App Service plan.

Answer: AC


Question No 2 

You need to ensure that the solution can meet the scaling requirements for Policy Service. Which Azure Application Insights data model should you use?

A. an Application Insights trace
B. an Application Insights metric
C. an Application Insights dependency
D. an Application Insights event

Answer: B

Question No 3 

You need to recommend a solution to automate the configuration for the finance department users. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. an Azure logic app and the Microsoft Identity Management (MIM) client
B. Azure AD Identity Protection
C. dynamic groups and conditional access policies
D. Azure AD B2C

Answer: C 

Scenario: 
Ensure Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for the users in the finance department only. The recommendation is to use conditional access policies that can then be targeted to groups of users, specific applications, or other conditions.


Question No 4 

You need to meet the technical requirement for VM4. What should you create and configure?

A. an Azure Event Hub
B. an Azure Notification Hub
C. an Azure Logic App
D. an Azure Service Bus

Answer: A 

Scenario: 
Create a workflow to send an email message when the settings of VM4 are modified. You can start an automated logic app workflow when specific events happen in Azure resources or third-party resources. These resources can publish those events to an Azure event grid. In turn, the event grid pushes those events to subscribers that have queues, webhooks, or event hubs as endpoints. As a subscriber, your logic app can wait for those events from the event grid before running automated workflows to perform tasks - without you writing any code.


Question No 5 

Which pricing tier should you recommend for WebApp?

A. D1
B. P1v2
C. S1
D. B1

Answer: C 

Explanation: 
Standard supports up to 10 instances, and would be enough as the Standard plan includes auto scale that can automatically adjust the number of virtual machine instances running to match your traffic needs. Scenario: Ensure that WebApp1 can adjust the number of instances automatically based on the load and can scale up to five instances

Incorrect Answers: 
D: Basic supports only up to 3 instances.

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Pass AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Exam with New CLF-C01 Dumps | DumpsProfessor

Question No 1 

Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following is the customer responsible for?

A. Ensuring that disk drives are wiped after use.
B. Ensuring that firmware is updated on hardware devices.
C. Ensuring that data is encrypted at rest.
D. Ensuring that network cables are category six or higher.

Answer: C 

Explanation: 
AWS for a self-hosted database that requires a nightly shutdown for maintenance and cost-saving purposes


Question No 2 

The use of what AWS feature or service allows companies to track and categorize spending on a detailed level?

A. Cost allocation tags
B. Consolidated billing
C. AWS Budgets
D. AWS Marketplace

Answer: C

Question No 3 

Which service stores objects, provides real-time access to those objects, and offers versioning and lifecycle capabilities?

A. Amazon Glacier
B. AWS Storage Gateway
C. Amazon S3
D. Amazon EBS

Answer: C


Question No 4 

A customer would like to design and build a new workload on AWS Cloud but does not have the AWS-related software technical expertise in-house. Which of the following AWS programs can a customer take advantage of to achieve that outcome?

A. AWS Partner Network Technology Partners
B. AWS Marketplace
C. AWS Partner Network Consulting Partners
D. AWS Service Catalog

Answer: C


Question No 5 

Which AWS characteristics make AWS cost effective for a workload with dynamic user demand? (Select TWO.)

A. High availability
B. Shared security model
C. Elasticity
D. Pay-as-you-go pricing
E. Reliability

Answer: C,D

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Amazon DOP-C01 Practice Test Questions~ Unique and the Most Challenging | DumpsProfessor

Question No 1 

To run an application, a DevOps Engineer launches an Amazon EC2 instances with public IP addresses in a public subnet. A user data script obtains the application artifacts and installs them on the instances upon launch. A change to the security classification of the application now requires the instances to run with no access to the Internet. While the instances launch successfully and show as healthy, the application does not seem to be installed. Which of the following should successfully install the application while complying with the new rule?

A. Launch the instances in a public subnet with Elastic IP addresses attached. Once the application is installed and running, run a script to disassociate the Elastic IP addresses afterwards.
B. Set up a NAT gateway. Deploy the EC2 instances to a private subnet. Update the private subnet's route table to use the NAT gateway as the default route.
C. Publish the application artifacts to an Amazon S3 bucket and create a VPC endpoint for S3. Assign an IAM instance profile to the EC2 instances so they can read the application artifacts from the S3 bucket.
D. Create a security group for the application instances and whitelist only outbound traffic to the artifact repository. Remove the security group rule once the install is complete.

Answer: B


Question No 2 

An IT department manages a portfolio with Windows and Linux (Amazon and Red Hat Enterprise Linux) servers both on-premises and on AWS. An audit reveals that there is no process for updating OS and core application patches, and that the servers have inconsistent patch levels. Which of the following provides the MOST reliable and consistent mechanism for updating and maintaining all servers at the recent OS and core application patch levels?

A. Install AWS Systems Manager agent on all on-premises and AWS servers. Create Systems Manager Resource Groups. Use Systems Manager Patch Manager with a preconfigured patch baseline to run scheduled patch updates during maintenance windows.
B. Install the AWS OpsWorks agent on all on-premises and AWS servers. Create an OpsWorks stack with separate layers for each operating system, and get a recipe from the Chef supermarket to run the patch commands for each layer during maintenance windows.
C. Use a shell script to install the latest OS patches on the Linux servers using yum and schedule it to run automatically using cron. Use Windows Update to automatically patch Windows servers.
D. Use AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store to securely store credentials for each Linux and Windows server. Create Systems Manager Resource Groups. Use the Systems Manager Run Command to remotely deploy patch updates using the credentials in Systems Manager Parameter Store

Answer: D

Question No 3 

A company is setting up a centralized logging solution on AWS and has several requirements. The company wants its Amazon CloudWatch Logs and VPC Flow logs to come from different sub accounts and to be delivered to a single auditing account. However, the number of sub accounts keeps changing. The company also needs to index the logs in the auditing account to gather actionable insight. How should a DevOps Engineer implement the solution to meet all of the company’s requirements?

A. Use AWS Lambda to write logs to Amazon ES in the auditing account. Create an Amazon CloudWatch subscription filter and use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams in the sub accounts to stream the logs to the Lambda function deployed in the auditing account.
B. Use Amazon Kinesis Streams to write logs to Amazon ES in the auditing account. Create a CloudWatch subscription filter and use Kinesis Data Streams in the sub accounts to stream the logs to the Kinesis stream in the auditing account.
C. Use Amazon Kinesis Firehose with Kinesis Data Streams to write logs to Amazon ES in the auditing account. Create a CloudWatch subscription filter and stream logs from sub accounts to the Kinesis stream in the auditing account.
D. Use AWS Lambda to write logs to Amazon ES in the auditing account. Create a CloudWatch subscription filter and use Lambda in the sub accounts to stream the logs to the Lambda function deployed in the auditing account.

Answer: C


Question No 4 

A DevOps Engineer is implementing a mechanism for canary testing an application on AWS. The application was recently modified and went through security, unit, and functional testing. The application needs to be deployed on an AutoScaling group and must use a Classic Load Balancer. Which design meets the requirement for canary testing?

A. Create a different Classic Load Balancer and Auto Scaling group for blue/green environments. Use Amazon Route 53 and create weighted A records on Classic Load Balancer.
B. Create a single Classic Load Balancer and an Auto Scaling group for blue/green environments. Use Amazon Route 53 and create A records for Classic Load Balancer IPs. Adjust traffic using A records.
C. Create a single Classic Load Balancer and an Auto Scaling group for blue/green environments. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution with the Classic Load Balancer as the origin. Adjust traffic using CloudFront.
D. Create a different Classic Load Balancer and Auto Scaling group for blue/green environments. Create an Amazon API Gateway with a separate stage for the Classic Load Balancer. Adjust traffic by giving weights to this stage.

Answer: A


Question No 5 

An online retail company based in the United States plans to expand its operations to Europe and Asia in the next six months. Its product currently runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The instances run in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. All data is stored in an Amazon Aurora database instance. When the product is deployed in multiple regions, the company wants a single product catalog across all regions, but for compliance purposes, its customer information and purchases must be kept in each region. How should the company meet these requirements with the LEAST amount of application changes?

A. Use Amazon Redshift for the product catalog and Amazon DynamoDB tables for the customer information and purchases.
B. Use Amazon DynamoDB global tables for the product catalog and regional tables for the customer information and purchases
C. Use Aurora with read replicas for the product catalog and additional local Aurora instances in each region for the customer information and purchases.
D. Use Aurora for the product catalog and Amazon DynamoDB global tables for the customer information and purchases.

Answer: C

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Amazon ANS-C00 Dumps with 100% Passing Assurance | DumpsProfessor

Question No 1 

Your organization’s corporate website must be available on www.acme.com and acme.com. How should you configure Amazon Route 53 to meet this requirement?

A. Configure acme.com with an ALIAS record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with an ALIAS record targeting the ELB.
B. Configure acme.com with an A record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the acme.com record.
C. Configure acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the acme.com record.
D. Configure acme.com using a second ALIAS record with the ELB target. www.acme.com using a PTR record with the acme.com record target.

Answer: D


Question No 2 

You are designing the network infrastructure for an application server in Amazon VPC. Users will access all the application instances from the Internet and from an on-premises network. The onpremises network is connected to your VPC over an AWS Direct Connect link. How should you design routing to meet these requirements?

A. Configure a single routing table with two default routes: one to the Internet via an IGW, the other to the on-premises network via the VGW. Use this routing table across all subnets in your VPC.
B. Configure two routing tables: one that has a default route via the IGW, and another that has a default route via the VGW. Associate both routing tables with each VPC subnet.
C. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the IGW. Propagate a default route via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with all VPC subnet.
D. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the IGW. Propagate specific routes for the on-premises networks via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with all VPC subnets.

Answer: D


Question No 3 

Your company decides to use Amazon S3 to augment its on-premises data store. Instead of using the company’s highly controlled, on-premises Internet gateway, a Direct Connect connection is ordered to provide high bandwidth, low latency access to S3. Since the company does not own a publically routable IPv4 address block, a request was made to AWS for an AWS-owned address for a Public Virtual Interface (VIF). The security team is calling this new connection a “backdoor”, and you have been asked to clarify the risk to the company. Which concern from the security team is valid and should be addressed?

A. AWS advertises its aggregate routes to the Internet allowing anyone on the Internet to reach the router.
B. Direct Connect customers with a Public VIF in the same region could directly reach the router.
C. EC2 instances in the same region with access to the Internet could directly reach the router.
D. The S3 service could reach the router through a pre-configured VPC Endpoint.

Answer: A


Question No 4 

Your organization uses a VPN to connect to your VPC but must upgrade to a 1-G AWS Direct Connect connection for stability and performance. Your telecommunications provider has provisioned the circuit from your data center to an AWS Direct Connect facility and needs information on how to cross-connect (e.g., which rack/port to connect). What is the AWS-recommended procedure for providing this information?

A. Create a support ticket. Provide your AWS account number and telecommunications company’s name and where you need the Direct Connect connection to terminate.
B. Create a new connection through your AWS Management Console and wait for an email from AWS with information.
C. Ask your telecommunications provider to contact AWS through an AWS Partner Channel. Provide your AWS account number.
D. Contact an AWS Account Manager and provide your AWS account number, telecommunications company’s name, and where you need the Direct Connect connection to terminate.

Answer: A


Question No 5 

You have a three-tier web application with separate subnets for Web, Applications, and Database tiers. Your CISO suspects your application will be the target of malicious activity. You are tasked with notifying the security team in the event your application is port scanned by external systems. Which two AWS Services cloud you leverage to build an automated notification system? (Select two.) 

A. Internet gateway
B. VPC Flow Logs
C. AWS CloudTrail
D. Lambda
E. AWS Inspector

Answer: C,D 

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